Rape by deceit is rape, but …
How did this man manage to deceive an Israeli Jewish woman that he was Jewish?
Surely, as a native Arabic speaker, he would have an accent to match, even if he could speak good Hebrew (or English). The woman he slept with would have noticed, much as a native English speaker can usually tell someone who isn’t by a foreign accent. Maybe she was deaf, but that’s not mentioned in any of the news reports.
I’m not arguing that rape by deceit isn’t rape; it is, and even if the victim is prejudiced, that’s no excuse. But this case doesn’t make sense to me.
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